Dark Posted March 11, 2010 Report Share Posted March 11, 2010 Take a whole cirlce, it's counted as being a whole, so it's 1. Now divide it by 3, so you get 3 pieces of the circle, 33.33333... I don't understand how 1 divided by 3 gets you 33 and three repeating. Unless I forgot to divide by zero and multiply by pi. That might be the problem. Someone probably already showed this, but I'm not sure. x = .999...10x = 9.999... Subtract the second equation by the first. 9x = 9x = 1 So, 1 = .999... I could attempt to prove that 0.000...1 is equal to 0, but Crab will probably come here and whip me with a fish for getting it wrong. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CrabHelmet Posted March 11, 2010 Report Share Posted March 11, 2010 I could attempt to prove that 0.000...1 is equal to 0' date=' but Crab will probably come here and whip me with a fish for getting it wrong.[/quote'] I'd say such an endeavour would be failed from the outset, as you would first need a meaningful definition of 0.000...1. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dark Posted March 11, 2010 Report Share Posted March 11, 2010 I could attempt to prove that 0.000...1 is equal to 0' date=' but Crab will probably come here and whip me with a fish for getting it wrong.[/quote'] I'd say such an endeavour would be failed from the outset, as you would first need a meaningful definition of 0.000...1. Ahh, this oughta be a toughy. My original definition was 'a number that can be added to .999... to attain a sum of 1'. But since we have proven that .999... = 1, that is automatically proven as 0. Not really a mathematical definition, but 'a number with zeroes such that the one is in the lowest place value of the decimal system'. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CrabHelmet Posted March 11, 2010 Report Share Posted March 11, 2010 I could attempt to prove that 0.000...1 is equal to 0' date=' but Crab will probably come here and whip me with a fish for getting it wrong.[/quote'] I'd say such an endeavour would be failed from the outset, as you would first need a meaningful definition of 0.000...1. Ahh, this oughta be a toughy. My original definition was 'a number that can be added to .999... to attain a sum of 1'. But since we have proven that .999... = 1, that is automatically proven as 0. Not really a mathematical definition, but 'a number with zeroes such that the one is in the lowest place value of the decimal system'. But the decimal system has no lowest place value. It has the same Von Neumann order-type as the positive integers, which means that you can find a last decimal place only in the sense that you can find a last positive integer (i.e. you can't). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Azmodius Posted March 11, 2010 Report Share Posted March 11, 2010 all of math is stupid Normaly, I would provide a rebbutal on how it is very usefull, but not this time. BEST POST EVAR. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Reaper of Shadows Posted March 11, 2010 Report Share Posted March 11, 2010 limit theory disproves that Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CrabHelmet Posted March 11, 2010 Report Share Posted March 11, 2010 Calculus was originally developed at least by one of its inventors purely for the purposes of conducting siege warfare - it was necessary to calculate the proper way to attack with trebuchets and hit the intended target. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Yogg-Saron Posted March 11, 2010 Report Share Posted March 11, 2010 That's the reason the 3s repeat. Just because your calculator stopped doesn't mean the number has stopped. :3 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Reaper of Shadows Posted March 11, 2010 Report Share Posted March 11, 2010 thatz the problemreleying on the calcs information Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Womi Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 00000001 + 00000001 = 00000010 It's true' date=' no joke.[/quote'] A byte is so much cooler. <_< Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Scatty Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 I will prove all of you wrong! Take A. A is the value of an Ace is the game of Blackjack. According to the rules, A=1 But, according to the same rules, A=11 So, using simple logic, we would have 1=11 Right? (the above statement is a joke made up for the sake of post count) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Womi Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 No.Owait, this was a joke? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Scatty Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Yup. POST COUNT POWAH! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Raylen Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Guys. Let's assume some number x = 0.9 repeated. So: 10 x = 9.9 repeated 10 x - x = 9.9 repeated - 0.9 repeated 9x = 9 x = 1. This method can be used to evaluate any form of repeating fraction. I.e. 0.17 repeated x = 0.17 repeated 100 x = 17.17 repeated. 100 x - x = 17.17 repeated - 0.17 repeated 99x = 17 x = 17/99 What's going on is that you guys haven't defined the equal sign correctly. In formal logic, the definition of equals is that there are no numbers between the LS and RS. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Scatty Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 No REAL NUMBERS, for that matter. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gizmo00999 Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Doesn't this have to do something with Pi? :) or PI or however u wanna call it (the little greek letter) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Womi Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Except being infinite....No. Not really. =) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dark Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 Calculus was originally developed at least by one of its inventors purely for the purposes of conducting siege warfare - it was necessary to calculate the proper way to attack with trebuchets and hit the intended target. Didn't Newton invent calculus to provide a mathematical proof that planets orbit in ellipses? Guys. Let's assume some number x = 0.9 repeated. So: 10 x = 9.9 repeated 10 x - x = 9.9 repeated - 0.9 repeated 9x = 9 x = 1. This method can be used to evaluate any form of repeating fraction. I.e. 0.17 repeated x = 0.17 repeated 100 x = 17.17 repeated. 100 x - x = 17.17 repeated - 0.17 repeated 99x = 17 x = 17/99 What's going on is that you guys haven't defined the equal sign correctly. In formal logic' date=' the definition of equals is that there are no numbers between the LS and RS.[/quote'] A tad late. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CrabHelmet Posted March 12, 2010 Report Share Posted March 12, 2010 What's going on is that you guys haven't defined the equal sign correctly. In formal logic' date=' the definition of equals is that there are no numbers between the LS and RS.[/quote'] That's an extremely narrow definition that breaks down horribly when you're dealing with most things that aren't the set of real numbers, since it relies on the existence and definition of a specific total ordering that not only is not a well-ordering but also has other required properties related to density and such. A better definition is that two objects are equal if they represent the same element. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Raylen Posted March 13, 2010 Report Share Posted March 13, 2010 @ Crab: I completely agree with you. But I'm still learning, density theorem is best thing I know. :). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Scatty Posted March 13, 2010 Report Share Posted March 13, 2010 @ Crab: Haven't you just said the same think twice? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CrabHelmet Posted March 13, 2010 Report Share Posted March 13, 2010 @ Crab: I completely agree with you. But I'm still learning' date=' density theorem is best thing I know. :).[/quote'] Density works decently for its purposes; it's just that its purposes don't generalize beyond R terribly well. It still seems most reasonable to me to use the "two objects are equal if they are the same element" definition and then just use density to prove that those two objects are indeed the same element. @ Crab: Haven't you just said the same think twice? You will have to be more specific as to what same thing that is that you suppose I have said twice. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Shrekstasy Posted March 13, 2010 Report Share Posted March 13, 2010 Divide by 0 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Scatty Posted March 13, 2010 Report Share Posted March 13, 2010 @You said two objects are equal if they represent the same thing. And that's very redundant, if you ask me.@Twisted: Infinity. Or negative infinity, depends on the situation. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CrabHelmet Posted March 13, 2010 Report Share Posted March 13, 2010 @You said two objects are equal if they represent the same thing. And that's very redundant' date=' if you ask me.[/quote'] We're defining equality. If you already have a definition of equality in mind, then stating that definition will come across as a tautology. However, until you have defined equality, the "=" sign is completely meaningless, and thus a definition is required. The definition of equality varies significantly depending on your system and objectives. For example, two cardinalities are equal if the sets to which they correspond are bijective. Equality must be defined to have meaning, even if that definition is intuitive. @Twisted: Infinity. Or negative infinity' date=' depends on the situation.[/quote'] No. I have no desire to go into detail here, but you are wrong. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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