ragnarok1945 Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 3i is NOT a variable because "i" is still a fix number and therefore is a CONSTANT Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dark Posted December 8, 2008 Author Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 "i", in the situation of the SQRT of -9 is both THREE and NEGATIVE THREE. If it is 3i, i becomes -3. If it is -3i, i becomes 3. This means i is NOT a variable, but still is. But that is not my question, what does UNDEFINED mean? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 ' pid='1444588' dateline='1228777650']Imaginary numbers are EXSISTANT. The SQRT of -9' date=' is 3i or -3i. It is a number and a variable, it just means nothing.[/quote'] No, it means something. It just isn't in the set of numbers that we have designated to be called "real numbers". And it's not a variable; it's a constant. ' pid='1444588' dateline='1228777650']In this case' date=' I don't understand what undefined means. There are infinite solutions, but the answer is restricted to ONE solution. Does that mean that the answer to 0/0 in itself is a contradiction, making it UNDEFINED?[/quote'] The definition of division says: Given two numbers A and B, where B =/= 0, A / B = C for the unique C such that A = BC. "Undefined" is literal; the definition of division does not allow B to be zero, so setting B equal to zero defies the definition, and thus produces no defined result. Trying to amend the definition to allow B = 0 results in the paradoxes described above the would stop division from being a function. Anyhow, I'm gone. Bye. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dark Posted December 8, 2008 Author Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 So UNDEFINED, in this case, is because there is a contradiction of infinite solutions while containing a variable, restricted to one solution. OK, I finally get it now. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Flinsbon Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 OK, EVERYONE STOP! We have answered why 0/0 is undefined. Let's move on! If you don't believe me, look at the first post of page 7. New question to argue - why is 0! = 1? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ragnarok1945 Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 because a factorial is a product of numbers, and a product of no numbers at all = 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dark Posted December 8, 2008 Author Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 OK' date=' EVERYONE STOP![/size'] We have answered why 0/0 is undefined. Let's move on! If you don't believe me, look at the first post of page 7. New question to argue - why is 0! = 1? Hehe, no. You want to ask that question, make a new thread, don't take over mine. But here is my answer why it SHOULD NOT BE. 1! is 1 X 1 X 1 X 1 X 1 X 1... 2! is 2 X 1 X 1 X 1 X 1 X 1... 0! is 0 X... we cannot go to one, as 1 > 0. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ragnarok1945 Posted December 8, 2008 Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 A factorial only goes down to *1 and that's it, you don't keep multiplying by 1 over and over once to get down there. As for why 0! = 1, this is am empty product, which means you're multiplying by no numbers. Therefore the result is it's multiplicative identity, which is 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dark Posted December 8, 2008 Author Report Share Posted December 8, 2008 Read the title and don't post. Make a new thread, FTW. I would love to take part in it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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