.:pyramid:. Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 i want to know whether im working out my odds right of is their a different forumla to work out the chances you will draw a certain card in your oppening hand. the reason i am asking is because i want to take my game to the next level. when you pick up your first card from your deck you know that the chance of you drawing it is x/40, x=the number of that card you have in your deck. when drawing the first card of your deck to make your starting hand if your card is;a limited card (1/40)= 2.5% on drawing ita semi limited card (2/40) = 5% on drawing ita unlimited card (3/40) = 7.5% on drawing it when drawing the second card of your deck to make your starting hand if your card is, assuming you didnt draw it already (note, if you want to simulate drawing doubles go 1 group down. e.g unlimited to semi limited);a limited card (1/39)= 2.6% on drawing it (rounded up)a semi limited card (2/39) = 5.2% on drawing it (rounded up)a unlimited card (3/39) = 7.7% on drawing it (rounded up) when drawing the Third card of your deck to make your starting hand if your card is, assuming you didnt draw it already (note, if you want to simulate drawing doubles go 1 group down. e.g unlimited to semi limited);a limited card (1/38)= 2.6% on drawing it (rounded up)a semi limited card (2/38) = 5.3% on drawing it (rounded up)a unlimited card (3/38) = 7.9% on drawing it (rounded up 7.89) when drawing the fouth card of your deck to make your starting hand if your card is, assuming you didnt draw it already (note, if you want to simulate drawing doubles go 1 group down. e.g unlimited to semi limited);a limited card (1/37)= 2.7% on drawing it (rounded up)a semi limited card (2/37) = 5.4% on drawing it (rounded up)a unlimited card (3/37) = 8.1% on drawing it (rounded up) when drawing the fith card of your deck to make your starting hand if your card is, assuming you didnt draw it already (note, if you want to simulate drawing doubles go 1 group down. e.g unlimited to semi limited);a limited card (1/36)= 2.8% on drawing it (rounded up)a semi limited card (2/36) = 5.6% on drawing it (rounded up 5.555)a unlimited card (3/36) = 8.3% on drawing it (rounded up) your first draw phase draw;a limited card (1/35)= 2.9% on drawing it (rounded up)a semi limited card (2/35) = 5.7% on drawing it (rounded up)a unlimited card (3/35) = 8.6% on drawing it (rounded up) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mindscatter Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 Ya we know this. Usually when you're in a Duel you have a calculator for LP, you can also use it for odds. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
iAmNateXero Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 You should simplify all the equations. IE: 2/40 should be 1/20. It looks neater, and is mathematically correct. (Not saying 2/40 isn't correct.) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tonisanoob Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 im pretty sure your thinking too much into it Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Toffee. Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 Draw engines ftw? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
iAmNateXero Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 This is good to know. It shows you your deck before you even build it. +Rep and subscribed! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Exiro Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 im pretty sure your thinking too much into it This isn't even that complicated.Perhaps you're just not thinking enough into it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest PikaPerson01 Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 this isn't news to anyone. No one cares. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RyanAtlus Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 I once caluclated that your odds of drawing an unlimited card in your opening hand (40-card deck) + first Draw Phase would be almost 60%. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Exiro Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 I once caluclated that your odds of drawing an unlimited card in your opening hand (40-card deck) + first Draw Phase would be almost 60%. You calculated incorrectly. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RyanAtlus Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 I once caluclated that your odds of drawing an unlimited card in your opening hand (40-card deck) + first Draw Phase would be almost 60%. You calculated incorrectly. Then can you calculate the chance of drawing at least 1 out of 3 Shapesnatches in a 40-card Shapesnatch OTK? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest PikaPerson01 Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 I once caluclated that your odds of drawing an unlimited card in your opening hand (40-card deck) + first Draw Phase would be almost 60%. Pro-Tip: It's not. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Toffee. Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 I once caluclated that your odds of drawing an unlimited card in your opening hand (40-card deck) + first Draw Phase would be almost 60%. Pro-Tip: It's not. It also depends on the build. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Exiro Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 I once caluclated that your odds of drawing an unlimited card in your opening hand (40-card deck) + first Draw Phase would be almost 60%. You calculated incorrectly. Then can you calculate the chance of drawing at least 1 out of 3 Shapesnatches in a 40-card Shapesnatch OTK? Calculation of the chance of drawing at least 1 out of 3 Shapesnatches in a 40-card Shapesnatch OTK. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
.:pyramid:. Posted September 29, 2009 Author Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 see it was just i rember, reading that someone had a 30% cahnce of drawing it, but then i remebered it was macro (and was talking about the difference between running 3 d fissure and 2 marco and running 3 d fissure and three macro), and that is why i thought it was wrong Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
~/Coolio Prime\~ Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 I once caluclated that your odds of drawing an unlimited card in your opening hand (40-card deck) + first Draw Phase would be almost 60%. 3/20 = 60% :o Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
zombiepromking Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 This theory doesn't always work. Tested it once; a 1/40 chance turned into a 1/15 chance of drawing a limited card in your first hand. The true odds would be given depending on how you shuffle your deck. Which puts me way over my head in terms of math. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BehindTheMask Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 secondly, a simpler and more general formula for an opening hand to contain one of a certain card would be more like:[(x/d)^y]*[([d-x]/d)^(6-y)] where:x = number of copies of said card in your decky = number of copies of said card you want to draw in your opening handd = deck size Taken from : http://forums.yugiohetc.com/topic/56798-yugioh-and-mathematics/page__view__findpost__p__1267655 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
.:pyramid:. Posted September 29, 2009 Author Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 This theory doesn't always work. Tested it once; a 1/40 chance turned into a 1/15 chance of drawing a limited card in your first hand. The true odds would be given depending on how you shuffle your deck. Which puts me way over my head in terms of math. stacking will always affect your odds dramatically. for example when people try to put their deck in an order before shuffling so they get a good mix of monsters to s/t ratio. to work this out you would need to work out the amount of monsters, spells and traps you have (normally these two are treated as 1 pile for some duelists because of the lack of traps they run ). so say your going for perfect spilt in your first hand (2 monsters, 2 spells, 2 traps ) then your odd would be; monsters = x amount of 1 monster card in deck/ the total monster countspells = x amount of 1 spell card in deck/ the total spell counttraps = x amount of 1 trap card in deck/ the total trap count and then double them. note: the second part is wrong because you would have slightly better odds than double them because your monster/ spell /trap is lower. also i would know how to stack the deck like this to makes this true because this is only an example. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
zombiepromking Posted September 29, 2009 Report Share Posted September 29, 2009 This theory doesn't always work. Tested it once; a 1/40 chance turned into a 1/15 chance of drawing a limited card in your first hand. The true odds would be given depending on how you shuffle your deck. Which puts me way over my head in terms of math. stacking will always affect your odds dramatically. for example when people try to put their deck in an order before shuffling so they get a good mix of monsters to s/t ratio. to work this out you would need to work out the amount of monsters' date=' spells and traps you have (normally these two are treated as 1 pile for some duelists because of the lack of traps they run ). so say your going for perfect spilt in your first hand (2 monsters, 2 spells, 2 traps ) then your odd would be; monsters = x amount of 1 monster card in deck/ the total monster countspells = x amount of 1 spell card in deck/ the total spell counttraps = x amount of 1 trap card in deck/ the total trap count and then double them. note: the second part is wrong because you would have slightly better odds than double them because your monster/ spell /trap is lower. also i would know how to stack the deck like this to makes this true because this is only an example.[/quote'] God i thought it would be much more complicated than it turns out. Soft stacking is honestly the only way to assure this + shuffle gives you what you want. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RyanAtlus Posted September 30, 2009 Report Share Posted September 30, 2009 Sorry!I recalculated and I saw the chance being only 39,43% Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mysty Posted October 2, 2009 Report Share Posted October 2, 2009 Sorry!I recalculated and I saw the chance being only 39' date='43%[/quote'] Those odds are quite good if those are really the odds. That's why I consistently draw Mysterious Triangle! Now has anybody figured out the mathematics Bastion Misawa used to build his decks? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cerberus21 Posted October 3, 2009 Report Share Posted October 3, 2009 Screw page 1 nay sayers! This is a helpful thread. +1 rep for you and your calculator skills. Everyone else (including me) is too lazy to do this. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
~ P O L A R I S ~ Posted October 3, 2009 Report Share Posted October 3, 2009 Now has anybody figured out the mathematics Bastion Misawa used to build his decks? Whatever they are, they sure don't work. xD Maybe he's not as good as he says he is. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BehindTheMask Posted October 3, 2009 Report Share Posted October 3, 2009 secondly' date=' a simpler and more general formula for an opening hand to contain one of a certain card would be more like:[(x/d)^y']*[([d-x]/d)^(6-y)] where:x = number of copies of said card in your decky = number of copies of said card you want to draw in your opening handd = deck size Taken from : http://forums.yugiohetc.com/topic/56798-yugioh-and-mathematics/page__view__findpost__p__1267655 Whats that BtM? You have a formula anyone can use. OH SNAP. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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